Daily Current Affairs : 27th Sep 2025

Daily Current Affairs – 27th Sep. 2025: A Comprehensive Overview

Regulation of Social Media

The Karnataka High Court rejected social media platform X’s plea against the Central Government’s Sahyog Portal – a digital mechanism to issue content takedown notices.

The Court upheld the State’s right to regulate social media, calling Sahyog an “instrument of public good” and a “beacon of cooperation” between citizens, state, and platforms.

The Court stressed that social media platforms cannot operate in a state of “anarchic freedom.”

Sahyog Portal – A Public Good –

• Launched — October 2024 by the Union Home Ministry, and maintained by the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C).
• Purpose — A centralised channel (which connects central agencies, state police, and online intermediaries to combat cybercrime) for issuing takedown notices to to intermediaries.
• Legal basis — Section 79(3)(b), IT Act, 2000 – intermediaries lose “safe harbour protection” if they fail to act upon government notices of unlawful content.

•     Operational data —

• 65 intermediaries and nodal officers onboarded by April 2025.
• 130 takedown notices issued (Oct 2024 – Apr 2025) to platforms including Google, YouTube, Amazon, Microsoft.

X Corporation’s Challenge –

• Claim — Sahyog is a “censorship portal” creating a parallel, extra-legal content blocking regime.

•     Arguments —

• Section 79(3)(b) notices bypass stricter procedural safeguards under Section 69A IT Act. Unlike Section 69A, notices under Section 79(3)(b) lack transparency, hearing, and written
• Violates Shreya Singhal (2015) judgment, in which the apex court had specified that a takedown order under Section 79(3)(b) –
  • Could only be issued pursuant to a court order or a government notification and
  • Must relate to grounds similar to those in Section 69A.
• State governments and police issuing notices via Sahyog expands censorship .
• Support — Supporting X’s challenge, Digipub (collective of 92 digital publishers) argued that blocking orders through Sahyog threatens media freedom.

Government’s Defence –

• Necessity — Social media requires stricter regulation due to algorithmic amplification and rapid spread of harmful content.
• ‘Safe harbour’ is not absolute — It is a statutory privilege conditional upon due diligence.
• Separation of powers — Section 79(3)(b) and Section 69A operate independently.
  • Section 79(3)(b): Failure to comply results in loss of safe harbour.
  • Section 69A: Blocking power on grounds of sovereignty, security, public order.
• Efficiency — Sahyog is an efficient, transparent mechanism to expedite unlawful content removal.
• X Corp – a foreign entity — Hence, it cannot invoke Article 19 rights (available only to Indian citizens).

High Court’s Ruling –

• The judgment outlined three red lines for social media companies —
  • Social media cannot remain unregulated.
  • Companies must comply with the laws of the land.
  • Past precedents like Shreya Singhal (2015) cannot be used to interpret new regulatory frameworks under IT Rules 2021.

Key Legal Issues Touched upon by the HC –

•     Need for regulation —

• The spread of information has always been regulated across civilisations.
• Social media as a “modern amphitheater of ideas” cannot exist in anarchic freedom.
• Regulation is essential, especially for offences against women to safeguard the constitutional right to dignity.
• Regulation of social media is not unique to India, it is a global practice.

•     Law of the Land – India is not a playground —

• Platforms cannot operate in India while ignoring its statutory framework.

•     Liberty is tied to responsibility and accountability.

• X complies with the Take It Down Act in the US but refuses to follow similar takedown orders in India.
• American legal principles cannot be transplanted into the Indian constitutional framework.

•     Shreya Singhal not applicable – New law, new interpretation —

• X argued that the 2015 Shreya Singhal judgment allowed censorship only via courts or under Section 69A, IT Act.
• Court held –
  • Shreya Singhal judgment applied to the 2011 IT Rules (now obsolete).
  • The 2021 IT Rules are distinct, requiring a new interpretative lens.

•     Precedents cannot bind evolving regulatory regimes.

• Extent of Article 19 of the Indian Constitution — It applies only to Indian citizens; X, as a foreign corporation, cannot claim these protections.

Implications of the HC Ruling –

• For intermediaries — Non-compliance with Sahyog notices may result in the loss of safe harbour protection – establishing legal liability.
• Digital governance — Shows India’s move towards platform accountability.
• Cybersecurity — Strengthens mechanisms against cybercrime, misinformation, and online harms.
• Law and constitution — Reasserts sovereign right to regulate speech, balancing Article 19(1)
• (a) – freedom of Speech with reasonable restrictions.
• Policy relevance — Demonstrates how courts interpret technological evolution in line with national context.

Conclusion –

The ruling reaffirms India’s sovereign regulatory authority over digital platforms, emphasises the balance between free speech and accountability, and calls for continuous legal adaptation in line with technological advancements.

Right to Cooling

The government’s proposal to regulate air conditioner efficiency has reignited debate on the Right to Cooling as a public health and climate justice imperative in India and the Global South.

Introduction –

• The intensifying heatwaves across the Global South, including India, have turned cooling into an essential public health safeguard rather than a luxury.
• In June 2025, the Government of India proposed regulations requiring all new air conditioners to function within a temperature range of 20°C to 28°C, with 24°C as the default setting.
• While the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) projects that such a move could save 20 billion units of electricity annually and cut emissions by 16 million tonnes, the debate extends far beyond efficiency.
• It raises urgent questions of equity, climate justice, and the universal right to cooling.

Access to Cooling in India and the Global South –

• Cooling access in India remains severely In 2021, only 13% of urban households and 1% of rural households owned air conditioners, with overall national penetration at around 5%.
• The disparity is stark: Delhi reports 32% household ownership, while low-income states such as Bihar and Odisha report just 1%, despite recording extreme heat conditions.
• Globally, the contrast is sharper. Nearly 90% of households in the U.S. and Japan own an air conditioner, compared to 22% in Latin America and just 6% in Sub-Saharan Africa.
• Per capita electricity consumption for cooling in the S. is 28 times higher than in India.
• Despite these inequities, the discourse on cooling in the South is often framed as a climate burden, while in the North it is justified as a health necessity.

Health and Productivity Implications –

• Extreme heat is no longer just a climate phenomenon but a direct public health hazard.
• According to the World Health Organisation (WHO), heat exposure caused 489,000 global deaths between 2000 and 2019, with India recording over 20,000.
• The lack of reliable electricity, inadequate thermally secure housing, and under-equipped public health infrastructure amplify vulnerabilities.
• The International Labour Organisation (ILO) estimates that over 70% of the global workforce was exposed to excessive heat in 2020, causing 23 million occupational injuries and nearly 19,000 deaths.
• In India, where 80% of workers are in agriculture, construction, or street vending, the absence of heat-resilient workspaces threatens both health and livelihoods.

Policy Interventions and Heat Action Plans –

• Several Indian states and cities have initiated heat action plans, including early warning systems, public shelters, and awareness drives.
• However, weak institutional capacity, limited funding, and poor legal backing have restricted their Millions remain vulnerable to heat-related illnesses, productivity losses, and income insecurity.
• The government’s regulatory approach to air conditioner efficiency is commendable for energy savings, but risks being symbolic if not paired with stronger investments in affordable cooling access for the vulnerable.

Climate Justice and the Right to Cooling –

• Developed countries historically invested heavily in heating systems, often backed by subsidies and unchecked emissions.
• Today, developing nations like India face a similar need for cooling but with fewer resources and under mounting international pressure to decarbonise.
• Global emissions from cooling stand at one billion tonnes annually, far lower than heating- related emissions, yet the cooling demand is projected to triple by 2050, with India’s share growing eightfold.
• For the Global South, the challenge is twofold: achieving efficient cooling while ensuring universal access.
• Thus, cooling must be recognised not merely as a mitigation liability but as a development right tied to health, equity, and livelihood security.
• Bridging the gap requires financial and technological support from developed nations, large- scale public investment, and integration of cooling into climate adaptation strategies.

Agni-Prime Missile

The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully test-fired the Agni- Prime (Agni-P) missile from a rail-based mobile launcher.

This launch has placed India among a select group of nations — Russia, the US, China, and possibly North Korea — with the capability to launch long-range ballistic missiles from railway platforms using canisterised launch systems.

Agni Series of Missiles –

• The Agni series is India’s family of nuclear-capable ballistic missiles, developed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP) by the DRDO.
• They are a key element of India’s strategic deterrence capability.
• Agni-I (1989): A medium-range ballistic missile (MRBM) with a range of 700–1,000 km. It was India’s first in the series and is road- and rail-mobile.
• Agni-II (1999): A two-stage solid-fuel missile with a range of 2,000–3,000 km, capable of carrying nuclear warheads.
• Agni-III (2006): An intermediate-range ballistic missile (IRBM) with a range of 3,500–5,000 km, providing wider regional coverage.
• Agni-IV (2011): Improved navigation and accuracy, range of 3,500–4,000 km, lighter and more advanced than Agni-III.
• Agni-V (2012): An intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) with a range of 5,000–8,000 km, extending India’s deterrence to cover much of Asia and parts of Europe and Africa.
• Agni-P (Agni-Prime, 2021): A next-generation variant with a range of 1,000–2,000 km, combining advanced technologies from Agni-IV and V, lighter, more accurate, and canisterised.
• Agni-VI (under development): Expected range of 8,000–10,000 km, with potential multiple independently targetable re-entry vehicle (MIRV) capability.

Agni-P: The Next-Generation Upgrade to Agni-I –

• India’s Agni missile series, developed since the late 1980s, began with the Agni-I medium range ballistic missile (700–1,000 km range) tested in 1989.
• While Agni-I remains in service, defence planners sought upgrades, leading to the development of Agni-P (Agni-Prime).

• Agni Prime Ballistic Missile was tested for the first time in June 2021. It is lighter than any of the previous Agni missiles.
• Agni-P combines Agni-I’s range with advanced propulsion and navigation technologies from Agni-IV and Agni-V. It is the sixth missile in the Agni
• Weighing 11,000 kg, it is a two-stage, solid-fuel missile with an operational range of 1,000– 2,000 km, capable of carrying high explosive, thermobaric, or nuclear warheads.
• A nuclear-capable version tested in 2021 drew praise from the then Defence Minister, who said it would further bolster India’s Credible Deterrence capabilities.

Mobile Launch Platforms and India’s Second-Strike Capability –

• Mobile launch systems are vital to a nation’s second-strike capability, enabling it to retaliate after a nuclear attack.
• For India, which follows a “no first use” nuclear doctrine, such survivability is critical.
• Advances in satellite imagery, missile accuracy, and sensing technologies have made stationary silos increasingly vulnerable.
• As noted by defence experts, silos face heightened risks from both conventional and nuclear strikes.
• To counter this, militaries rely on mobile launch platforms — submarines, aircraft, and road or rail-based launchers — which are harder to detect and more resilient in an all-out conflict.

Advantages of Rail-Based Missile Launchers –

• Rail-based missile platforms offer distinct advantages over road or sea systems.
• While road-based launchers are constrained by road width and quality, India’s 70,000-km railway network enables nationwide mobility without major preparation.
• The numerous railway tunnels provide natural hiding spots, allowing launchers to evade enemy satellite surveillance and remain concealed until deployment.
• Compared to submarine-launched ballistic missiles (SLBMs), rail-based platforms are also cheaper to build and maintain, making them a more efficient and scalable option for strengthening strategic deterrence.

Countries with Rail-Based Missile Technology –

• India’s recent test places it among a select group of nations with rail-based missile launch capability
• The idea dates back to the Cold War, when both the US and USSR explored rail-mobile ICBMs.
• The US studied rail launchers for its Minuteman ICBMs in the 1950s and again planned Peacekeeper deployment in the 1980s, but abandoned both due to cost and the Soviet collapse.
• The Soviet Union successfully deployed the RT-23 Molodets rail-based ICBM system, later dismantled under the START Treaty.
  • Russia later considered reviving the concept with the Barguzin system but shelved it in favour of hypersonic missile development.
• In 2016, China reportedly tested a rail-mobile version of its DF-41
• North Korea has also tested rail-based short-range ballistic missiles (SRBMs), demonstrating their mobility and survivability.
• Experts note that rail-based missiles are a cheap, reliable option for enhancing nuclear force survivability, with Russia pioneering it, the US considering it, and North Korea actively pursuing it.

India’s Urban Blind Spot

The Registrar General of India has proposed retaining the 2011 Census definition of urban areas for Census 2027, ensuring comparability and consistency in analysing urbanisation trends.

Criteria for Urban Classification –

• In 2011, an urban unit was defined as either —
  • Statutory Towns – formally notified by State governments with urban local bodies such as municipal corporations, municipal councils, or nagar panchayats.
  • CensusTowns – settlements meeting three conditions:
    • Population of at least 5,000
    • At least 75% of the male main working population engaged in non-agricultural activities
    • Population density of at least 400 persons per km
    • By these criteria, only 31.2% of India is considered urban, though the actual extent is believed to be much higher.
    • Though census towns are administratively rural, they function like urban areas, creating a gap between governance and ground realities.

Global Comparisons –

• Unlike India’s strict three-criteria approach, most countries rely on one or two measures such as demographics, density, or infrastructure.
• The World Bank’s Agglomeration Index estimated that 3% of India’s population lived in urban-like areas in 2010, showing “hidden urbanisation” outside statutory limits.

•     DEGURBA: A Global Framework —

• To harmonise global urban definitions, six international organisations developed the Degree of Urbanisation (DEGURBA) method, endorsed by the UN in 2020.
  • It uses satellite imagery and population grids of 1 km².
  • Settlements are classified into seven sub-categories: urban centres, dense/semi-dense clusters, peri-urban, and various rural categories.
• This approach captures the real spatial extent of urbanisation beyond administrative boundaries.
• DEGURBA helps detect settlement patterns, improve service monitoring, and guide financial targeting.
• However, its low-density thresholds may misclassify croplands or peri-urban fringes as urban.
• As it relies on algorithms and satellite data, risks of under- or over-detection remain.

Limitations of Current Urban Definition –

• India’s binary definition of urban and rural fails to capture the complex realities of evolving settlements.
• While urban local bodies enjoy autonomy and better governance, Panchayati Raj institutions are limited, leaving many fast-urbanising areas under inadequate rural administration.
• Villages transforming into towns often remain unrecognised, despite dense populations, non-agricultural livelihoods, and urban lifestyles.
• As a result, census towns and peri-urban regions are excluded from proper governance and infrastructure, creating gaps in planning and services.
• For example, Census data show that 251 towns identified as urban in 2001 continued to be governed as rural areas even in 2011.
• West Bengal, with the highest rise in census towns, illustrates this mismatch, as many newly classified urban settlements were never converted into statutory towns with elected bodies, leaving them underprepared for infrastructure and planning needs.

Implications of Outdated Urban Definition –

• As India prepares for Census 2027, retaining the old definition of “urban” risks undercounting millions and excluding rapidly growing settlements from governance and services.
• Studies show India’s true urban population in 2011 may have been 35–57%, much higher than the official 31%.
• The rigid rules — such as the 75% male workforce engaged in non-agricultural jobs — are outdated, ignoring women’s informal work and the rise of industries, service jobs, and gig economy employment in semi-urban and rural areas.
• Many settlements that function as urban clusters remain unrecognised because they fall outside municipal boundaries or are divided administratively.
• Seasonal workers who straddle agriculture and urban jobs also fall through the cracks.
• Thus, continuing with the narrow, binary definition will misclassify urbanisation trends, leaving infrastructure, planning, and services ill-suited to India’s evolving settlement.

Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA)

Recently, the Union Home Ministry revoked the FCRA licence of the Students Educational and Cultural Movement of Ladakh (SECMOL), founded by climate activist Sonam Wangchuk.

About the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) –

• The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA) was originally enacted in 1976 during the Emergency to prevent foreign influence on India’s internal affairs through financial contributions.
• The FCRA, 2010, currently in force, regulates the acceptance and utilisation of foreign funds by individuals, associations, and companies in India.
• Its primary objective is to ensure that foreign donations do not compromise national sovereignty, integrity, or internal security, and are used only for legitimate developmental purposes.

Amendments to FCRA –

• FCRA (Amendment), 2010 –
  • Consolidated the 1976 law.
  • Expanded coverage to associations, NGOs, and companies.
  • Strengthened the regulatory framework.
• FCRA (Amendment), 2020 Key Changes –
  • Ban on Transfers: Prohibits NGOs from transferring foreign contributions to other NGOs or individuals.
  • Mandatory Aadhaar: All office bearers must provide Aadhaar/passport/OCI details for registration.
  • FCRA Account: All contributions must be received only in the designated SBI branch, New Delhi.
  • Reduced Administrative Expenses: Limit cut from 50% to 20% of foreign funds.
  • Renewal of Licence: Renewal contingent on government scrutiny for fictitious entities or misuse.
  • Suspension Extension: Suspension of registration can last up to 360 days.
  • Surrender Provision: Organisations can voluntarily surrender their FCRA licence, subject to approval.
  • Bar on Public Servants:Public servants are prohibited from receiving foreign contributions.
• FCRA Rules (Amendment), 2022 –
• Increased the annual limit for foreign remittances from relatives abroad from ₹1 lakh to ₹10 lakh without prior intimation.
• Simplified compliance for smaller transactions but reinforced safeguards against foreign funds that may threaten national interests.

Forum for India-Pacific Islands Cooperation

Recently, the Ministry of External Affairs hosted a meeting of the Foreign Ministers of the Forum for India-Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC) in New York.

About Forum for India-Pacific Islands Cooperation –

• It is a multilateral platform established by India to enhance cooperation with the Pacific Island countries.
• It was established in 2014 during the Prime Minister of India’s visit to Fiji
• Member countries — FIPIC includes 14 of the island countries – Cook Islands, Fiji, Kiribati, Marshall Islands, Micronesia, Nauru, Niue, Palau, Papua New Guinea, Samoa, Solomon Islands, Tonga, Tuvalu, and Vanuatu.
• In line with the “Act East Policy”, through FIPIC, India has primarily focused its efforts on the Pacific Islands.
• Economic Cooperation — At this moment, total annual trade of about $300 million between the Indian and Pacific Island countries, whereas exports are around $200 million and imports are around $100 million.
• FIPIC Summits held — Since from 2014 three FIPIC summits have been held, 1st 2014 (Suva, Fiji), 2nd 2015 (Jaipur, India), 3rd 2023 (Port Moresby, Papua New Guinea).

•     Key Initiatives of India related to FIPIC —

• Setting up of a special USD one million fund for adapting to climate change and clean energy, establishing a trade office in India
• Pan Pacific Islands e-network to improve digital connectivity,
• Visa on arrival at Indian airports for all the 14 Pacific Island countries,
• Cooperation in space technology applications for improving the quality of life of the islands, and training to diplomats from Pacific Island countries.

UNEP Young Champions of the Earth Prize

Recently, three entrepreneurs from India, Kenya and the United States have been awarded the UN Environment Programme’s 2025 Young Champions of the Earth prize.

About UNEP Young Champions of the Earth Prize –

• It is UN Environment Programme’s flagship initiative on youth engagement.
• It was established in 2017, relaunched in 2025in partnership with Planet A
• Eligibility: The annual prize recognises individuals under 30 for pioneering solutions to the planet’s most pressing environmental challenges.
• Prize money: Each winner receives $20,000 in seed funding, mentoring and access to a global platform to scale their ideas.

•     The 2025 Young Champions of the Earth are —

• Jinali Mody (India): Founded Banofi Leather, which produces leather alternatives made from banana crop waste. This reduces water use, toxic waste, and CO₂ emissions.
• Joseph Nguthiru (Kenya): Started HyaPak company converts the invasive species hyacinth in Lake Naivasha into packaging bags and biodegradable seedling wrappers.
• Noemi Florea (US): She has founded Cycleau, a compact water reuse system, in consultation with dozens of marginalized communities. The company transforms greywater into drinking water.

What is the UN Environment Programme?

• UNEP is the leading global voice on the environment.
• Since its founding in 1972, UNEP has served as a neutral convener of Member States, civil society, the private sector and UN agencies to address humanity’s most pressing environmental challenges.

National Geoscience Awards 2024

The President of India will confer the prestigious National Geoscience Awards (NGA) 2024 at a function to be held at the Rashtrapati Bhavan Cultural Centre, New Delhi.

About National Geoscience Awards 2024 –

•     It was instituted in 1966 by the Ministry of Mines, Government of India.

• The National Geoscience Awards (formerly known as the National Mineral Awards until 2009) are among the country’s oldest and most prestigious honours in the field of geosciences.
• Objective — To honour individuals and teams for extraordinary achievements and outstanding contributions in various fields of geosciences. mineral discovery & exploration, Mining Technology & Mineral Beneficiation, fundamental/ applied geosciences.
• Eligibility: Any citizen of India with significant contribution in any field of geosciences is eligible for the award.
• It is awarded annually under the following three categories:
  • National Geoscience Award for Lifetime Achievement
  • National Geoscience Award
  • National Young Geoscientist Award
• For the year 2024, 12 awards have been finalised under these three award categories, which include 09 individual and 03 team awards.

Khoe-San

Recently, a new genetic study published in the Cell Press journal reveals that European colonisation strongly altered the genetic ancestry of the indigenous Khoe-San peoples of southern Africa.

About Khoe-San –

• Khoe-San is a collective term for the indigenous peoples of southern Africa, encompassing:
  • San(Bushmen): Hunter-gatherers.
  • Khoekhoe (Khoi): Cattle, goat, and sheep pastoralists.
• They represent one of the earliest divergent human lineages, with exceptionally high genetic diversity.
• The research highlights sex-biased migration, where European male settlers displaced Khoe-San men, while Khoe-San women contributed significantly to present-day genetic lineages.
• The study also shows the impact of the slave trade, where enslaved women from South Asia, Southeast Asia, Eastern Africa, and Madagascar were brought to the Cape by the Dutch East India Company (VOC).

Historical Interactions –

• ~2,000 years ago — Eastern African pastoralists and Bantu-speaking agro-pastoralists arrived, influencing and displacing many Khoe-San groups.

• Last 1,500 years — Bantu-speaking groups largely replaced or assimilated Khoe-San populations in eastern South Africa.
• 1652 onwards — Dutch East India Company (VOC) established Cape Town; European settlers arrived in waves over 250 years.
• Slave Trade (1652–1808) — VOC enslaved ~63,000 people from Africa and Asia, mostly women, reshaping genetic ancestry.
• Indigenous Khoe-San were also recruited as labourers.

Pallikaranai Marshland

Recently, the southern bench of the National Green Tribunal has ordered a halt on all construction activity within one kilometre of the Pallikaranai Marshland until a scientific study is conducted.

About Pallikaranai Marshland –

• It is a freshwater marsh and partly saline wetland situated about 20 kilometres south of the city of Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
• It serves as an aquatic buffer of the flood-prone Chennai and Chengalpattu districts.
• It encompasses 65 wetlands, through two outlets, viz., Okkiyam Madavu and the Kovalam Creek, and falls into the Bay of Bengal.
• It is flanked by the Buckingham Canal on its eastern periphery.
• It is one of the Ramsar sites in India.

•     Fauna —

• The diverse ecosystem of the marshland supports some 115 bird species, ten mammals, 21 reptiles, ten amphibians, 46 fish, nine molluscs, five crustaceans, and seven butterfly species.
• These include notable species such as Russell’s viper (Daboia siamensis) and birds such as the glossy ibis (Plegadis falcinellus), grey-headed lapwings (Vanellus cinereus), and Pheasant-tailed jacana (Hydrophasianus chirurgus).

• Although tropical in bio-climate, the influence of the Bay of Bengal has been significant on the marsh.
• It continues to face significant anthropogenic pressures, including encroachments and sewage discharge.

Nightmare Bacteria

According to scientists at the US Centres for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), drug- resistant ‘nightmare bacteria’, driven by the NDM gene, are spreading faster than ever in the United States.

About Nightmare Bacteria –

• The term “nightmare bacteria” is used to describe Carbapenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae (CRE).
• This group of bacteria, which includes Klebsiella pneumoniae and Escherichia coli (E. coli), has developed resistance to carbapenems (a class of “last-resort” antibiotics usually reserved for severe infections).
• The CDC calls them “nightmare” because they: Spread resistance genes easily to other bacteria. And they do not respond to most antibiotics, making treatment difficult.

•     Symptoms of Nightmare Bacteria infections —

• Urinary tract infections: Feeling a burning sensation, a constant urge to urinate or ‘cloudy’ urine
• Bloodstreaminfections: High fever, rapid heartbeat or very low blood pressure.
• Pneumonia or lung infection: Cough, shortness of breath or chest pain.

•     Why is there an increase in infections?

• Antibiotic overuse: frequent or unnecessary use of antibiotics in humans and livestock has fueled resistance.
• Hospitalspread: patients on ventilators, catheters, or IV drips are especially vulnerable.
• Global travel: resistant strains can move quickly across borders.
• Post-pandemic vulnerabilities: COVID-19 left many patients with long hospital stays and heavy antibiotic use, creating more chances for resistant germs to thrive.

What is the NDM gene?

• NDM-1 (New Delhi Metallo-beta-lactamase-1) is an enzyme that makes bacteria resistant to a wide range of powerful antibiotics.
• The gene for NDM-1 encodes beta-lactamase enzymes called carbapenemases, which makes bacteria resistant to antibiotics, including carbapenem, which is used to treat other superbugs such as methicillin-resistant Staphyloccus aureus (MRSA).

Mahendragiri Hills

Recently, environmentalists warn of unchecked tourism projects in Odisha’s Mahendragiri hills.

About Mahendragiri Hills –

• Location — It is located in the Gajapati district of Odisha in the middle of Eastern Ghats.
• It was declared as a Biodiversity Heritage Site in 2022 due to its rich flora and fauna.
• It is part of an almost unbroken chain of hills between the Mahanadi and the Godavari rivers.
• It is situated amongst the Eastern Ghats at an elevation of 1,501 metres above sea level.
• Tribal Communities: It is home to the Saora (Saura) and Kondh tribes.
• Biodiversity — It supports 1,348 species of plants and 388 species of animals, many of them endemic and threatened.
• Rivers — The major river in the area is the Mahendra Tanaya, originating from the hill top of Mahendragiri.
• Vegetation — The vegetation of the region is marked with the presence of tropical dry and wet deciduous forest range.
• The principal rock types of the hill range are granite, charnokite, khondalite with intrusive veins of chert, chalcedony, quartz of both crystalline and opec forms.
• The site also attracts pilgrims to its Panchpandava temples.

Daily Current Affair 27th Sep 2025 MCQs

1.  Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Sahyog Portal’ –

1. It is maintained by the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) under the Union Home Ministry.
2. Its primary purpose is to serve as a platform for the public to directly report financial cyber fraud.
3. The legal provision that mandates intermediaries to comply with takedown notices issued via this portal is Section 79(3)(b) of the IT Act, 2000.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. All of the above

Answer – B 

Explanation – Launched in October 2024 by the Union Home Ministry, and maintained by the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C). Purpose — A centralised channel (which connects central agencies, state police, and online intermediaries to combat cybercrime) for issuing takedown notices to intermediaries. Legal basis — Section 79(3)(b), IT Act, 2000 – intermediaries lose “safe harbour protection” if they fail to act upon government notices of unlawful content. Operational data — 65 intermediaries and nodal officers onboarded by April 2025. 130 takedown notices issued (Oct 2024 – Apr 2025) to platforms including Google, YouTube, Amazon, Microsoft.

2.  Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect about the ‘Agni P Missile’?

1. It is developed by the DRDO as an advanced version of the Agni V missile system.
2. It is an intercontinental ballistic missile with surface to air capabilities.
3. It is nuclear capable which can carry a payload of 1,000 kg.

Select the correct codes from below –

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. All of the above

Answer – A

Explanation – The ‘Agni Prime’ is the advanced version of the ‘Agni-1’ missile. The ‘Agni Prime’ is a short-range ballistic missile that will have a range of 1000 km to 1500 km and will have advanced features in agility and road mobility. It is a surface to a surface missile that can carry a payload of around 1,000 Kg or a nuclear warhead. The double stage missile will be lighter and much sleeker than its predecessor ‘Agni-1’.

3.     Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about ‘Foreign Contributions Regulation Act’?

1. It was enacted in the year 1976 with the objective of regulating the acceptance and utilisation of foreign contribution.
2. It makes it mandatory for office bearers and key functionaries and members of an NGO to certify that they have not been “prosecuted or convicted” for “conversion” from one faith to another and for creating “communal tension and disharmony”.
3. It aims to prohibit funding for any activities detrimental to the national interest and for matters connected therewith.

Select the correct codes from below –

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. All of the above

Answer – D

Explanation – Government of India enacted the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA) in the year 1976 with an objective of regulating the acceptance and utilisation of foreign contribution. The legislation aims to regulate the acceptance and utilisation of foreign contribution or foreign hospitality by certain individuals or associations or companies. It aims to prohibit funding for any activities detrimental to the national interest and for matters connected therewith. The act was majorly modified in 2010 with several amendments because many NGOs were found using illegal use of foreign funding. Earlier, as per the FCRA 2010, only applicants such as directors who sought permission to receive foreign funds were required to make such a declaration. Now, every member of an NGO must, under oath, through an affidavit, declare that they have never been involved in diverting foreign funds or “sedition” or “advocating violent means”. It has been made mandatory for office bearers and key functionaries and members to certify that they have not been “prosecuted or convicted” for “conversion” from one faith to another and for creating “communal tension and disharmony”.

4.     Consider the following statements regarding the Forum for India-Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC) –

1. It is a multilateral platform initiated by the Pacific Island Countries to enhance trade relations with India.
2. The total annual trade between India and the FIPIC member countries is approximately $300 million, with India having a trade surplus.
3. Initiatives under FIPIC include a special fund for climate change adaptation, a Pan Pacific Islands e-network, and visa-on-arrival facilities for all member countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. All of the above

Answer – B 

Explanation – It is a multilateral platform established by India to enhance cooperation with the Pacific Island countries. It was established in 2014 during the Prime Minister of India’s visit to Fiji Member countries — FIPIC includes 14 of the island countries – Cook Islands, Fiji, Kiribati, Marshall Islands, Micronesia, Nauru, Niue, Palau, Papua New Guinea, Samoa, Solomon Islands, Tonga, Tuvalu, and Vanuatu. In line with the “Act East Policy”, through FIPIC, India has primarily focused its efforts on the Pacific Islands. Economic Cooperation — At this moment, total annual trade of about $300 million between the Indian and Pacific Island countries, whereas exports are around $200 million and imports are around $100 million. FIPIC Summits held — Since from 2014 three FIPIC summits have been held, 1st 2014 (Suva, Fiji), 2nd 2015 (Jaipur, India), 3rd 2023 (Port Moresby, Papua New Guinea). Key Initiatives of India related to FIPIC — Setting up of a special USD one million fund for adapting to climate change and clean energy, establishing a trade office in India Pan Pacific Islands e-network to improve digital connectivity, Visa on arrival at Indian airports for all the 14 Pacific Island countries, Cooperation in space technology applications for improving the quality of life of the islands, and training to diplomats from Pacific Island countries.

5.   Consider the following statements regarding the UNEP Young Champions of the Earth Prize –

1. It was established in 2017 and was relaunched in 2025 in partnership with Planet A.
2. The prize is awarded annually to individuals under the age of 30 for their innovative environmental solutions.
3. Each winner receives a cash prize of $50,000 along with mentorship and networking opportunities.
4. The 2025 winners include an innovator from India who produces leather alternatives from banana crop waste.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer – C

Explanation – It is UN Environment Programme’s flagship initiative on youth engagement. It was established in 2017, relaunched in 2025in partnership with Planet A. Eligibility: The annual prize recognises individuals under 30 for pioneering solutions to the planet’s most pressing environmental challenges. Prize money: Each winner receives $20,000 in seed funding, mentoring and access to a global platform to scale their ideas. The 2025 Young Champions of the Earth are — Jinali Mody (India): Founded Banofi Leather, which produces leather alternatives made from banana crop waste. This reduces water use, toxic waste, and CO₂ emissions. Joseph Nguthiru (Kenya): Started HyaPak company converts the invasive species hyacinth in Lake Naivasha into packaging bags and biodegradable seedling wrappers. Noemi Florea (US):  She has founded Cycleau, a compact water reuse system, in consultation with dozens of marginalized communities. The company transforms greywater into drinking water.

Source – The Hindu 

Also read Daily Current Affairs – 26 September 2025 | Top News